This is in response to Avram’s pshat on the other “hikacked” thread.
Avram; I hear that you can read the rambam that way; mah depasach bei – he starts off with kovod and the first perush is spending, the 2nd statement is ahavah and then the 2nd perush is lo yatil aleha aimah yeserah etc
According to that we still have the problem of why the rambam omits ahavah by a woman. She definitely is capable of not treating her husband lovingly, keaynaynu haro’os.
It could be that the seder is laav davka. Since we see from kibud av veaim that kovod does not mean giving of your own money, and from the rambam minei ubei we see that the wife’s kovod to her husband does not involve expenditures, ot could be that the rambam is mefaresh mah desayam bei, that which he ended off with , that ahavah is explained first.
But there’s a problem with my pshat too. How would it fit with “yoser megufo”? If kovod refers to monetary expenditures, then it’s very good…if middos, it’s not geshmak. Not impossible, but very not geshmak.
Do you have any other terutz as to why the rambam would omit ahavah by the wife?