At the time Shabbos came in was the food raw or not? Yes it was -so why isn’t it Muktza acc. to you?
I don’t understand your point; are you claiming that raw, inedible food is not muktzeh?
I dunno. I haven’t seen every one of his Teshuvos.
Then you have no right to extrapolate to your case, as per the M”A I quoted earlier.
So what’s his answer?
http://hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=14336&st=&pgnum=173&hilite=
“What was so unique about your case that it was more of a tzorech than any other case of not having a cholent, in which all the poskim are only mattir a shvus d’shvus?”
I already answered you that the cases I’ve seen in S’A are talking about a Peshiah -so you can’t use the excuse of Tzorech Godol.
That doesn’t answer my question.