Forget the 100 flips.
Back to squeak’s question. If the odds of getting 10 in a row of heads or tails can be computed by multiplying .5 to the 9th power and gives us 1 in 500, then how can the z score for the same thing be 1 in 100?
Squeak: You don’t get a reliable z score on 2 flips because the sample size is not big enough, so it won’t approximate a normal distribution.